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[New Updated Spring 2018] 100% Success Guaranteed Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers 602q Released 1-27

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This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6.

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Free VCE & PDF File for Cisco 300-101 Dumps Real Exam Quetsions(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4- compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
300-101 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
300-101 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
300-101 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in clear text?
A. MS CHAP
B. CDPCP
C. CHAP
D. PAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
PPPoE is composed of which two phases?
A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which one statement is true?
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 21
You are working with a geographically dispersed client on the design of a new network. The RFP has identified that there are 50 locations and that each must:
– Have a WLAN.
– Provide wireless access to the corporate network.
– Provide customers with internet access.
– Have 4 APs.
The customer also needs to:
– Ensure that customer internet traffic does not traverse the corporate network
– Consolidate their current networking gear (firewall, AAA server, DHCP server, etc) at each location
– Have a redundant path back to corporate headquarters in case of WAN outage.
Assuming the client is interested in a cost effective and scalable solution, which Motorola
Solutions Wireless Controller and Access Points would you implement?
A. RFS7000 with AP650
B. RFS4000 with AP650
C. RFS6000 with AP650
D. RFS7000 with AP6532
E. RF56000 with AP6532
300-101 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
You are tasked with designing a WLAN wireless network based on the following criteria.
– Number of sites = 1000
– Number of AP’s per site =4-6
– Centralized management/configuration is required
– Redundancy is required
The client would like a cost effective solution that has the ability to scale. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. 6 RFS7000’s controllers with 6 RFS7000’s redundant controllers in the Network Operations Center (NOC)
B. 1 NX9000 controller with 1 NX9000 redundant controller in the NOC
C. 1 RFS7000 in the NOC and 1000 RFS4000 at each site
D. 10 RFS6000 controllers with 10 RFS6000 redundant controllers in the NOC
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
Motorola Solutions WLAN products eliminate bottlenecks and poorly performing applications by utilizing smart direct routing, which provides a more powerful, high performing, secure network. All of the following are considered benefits of Motorola Solutions smart direct routing, EXCEPT:
A. Greater Network Capacity
B. Higher Quality of Service
C. Reduces the amount of PoE devices in a typical network
D. Decreased Network Traffic
E. Increased Mobility and Roaming
300-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
The centralized WLAN is actually a hub-and-spoke architecture that requires backhaul of virtually all wireless traffic to a controller (the hub). This hub-and-spoke architecture can create costly scalability and performance issues for$02.11n networks. Motorola’s WiNG 5 WLAN 802.11n capable distributed architecture is designed to overcome these challenges.
Some of the challenges are listed below:
– Increased burden on the wired network.
– Throughput bottleneck.
– Reliability
– Limited investment protection
Which of the following is another Hub and Spoke challenge that is addressed by the WiNG 5 architecture?
A. Non Peak Application bandwidth down time
B. Eliminates the need for a controller in large networks
C. Extended seamless roaming from mobile devices with no latency
D. Dependent networks can only scale to the processing limitations of the controller and available bandwidth of the network.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO:25
The primary design feature of an Independent Access Point is the ability to:
A. Adapt to different environmental characteristics during a deployment like changes in temperature and humidity.
B. Enable centralized management of remotely installed APs.
C. Adapt to multiple antennas and antenna types to provide maximum coverage in all installation settings.
D. Enables access points to switch between access, sensor and sniffer modes as needed.
300-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
You have been asked to design an outdoor wireless network and the specification calls for the installation of lightning arrestors. What is the primary role of lightning arrestors?
A. To protect the access point from a direct lighting strike
B. To protect the building
C. To protect the antenna
D. To protect the access point from a indirect lighting strike
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
You are designing a system for an indoor customer site that will have 6 Independent APs (IAPs). In order to minimize co-channel interference on the 802.11b/g/n band, how should the IAPs be configured?
A. All the IAPs should be on the same channel
B. The IAPs should be replaced with standard Access Ports
C. The IAPs should use channels 1, 6 and 11 and should be placed such that no two neighbor IAPs are on the same channel
D. Co-channel interference only occurs on the 802.11a/n wireless band and is not a factor for 802.11b/g/n
300-101  exam Answer: C
Explanation:
300-101 dumps

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